To see views enlarged, click on the individual pictures...

Photos courtesy of: Bita Esmaeli, M.D. / M.D. Anderson Cancer Center
Used with permission. Not to be reproduced.

A 57-year-female presented with painless right lacrimal fossa fullness and diplopia. MRI and histology of a touch prep and permanent section of an incisional biopsy specimen are shown.

1.	This represents:
	a. orbital abscess b. pleomorphic adenoma c. the most common malignant epithelial lacrimal gland tumor d. idiopathic orbital inflammation e. the most common primary orbital malignancy in adults
2.	The next step in the care of this patient should be:
	a. blood cultures b. questioning of sinusitis symptoms c. systemic steroid trial d. admission and systemic antibiotics e. systemic evaluation of involvement of other sites
3.	If the patient’s disease is localized to the orbit, treatment may be:
	a. orbitotomy and drainage of abscess b. 60mg prednisone c. observation d. radiotherapy e. surgical excision

For answers to the above, click here on or after April 13, 2010.