To see views enlarged, click on the individual pictures...

This 40-year-old woman presented with a history of acute swelling of both eyes. This began 10 days ago and has increased steadily. The patient reported severe eye pain and was not able to cooperate for a thorough eye examination. Because of this, visual acuity or an evaluation of the interior part of the eye could not be obtained. There was no history of drug intake or of allergy. The patient was otherwise healthy.

1.	The most likely diagnosis in this case is:
	a. orbital cellulitis b. preceptal cellulitis c. Stevens-Johnson syndrome d. angioedema e. none of the above
2.	What is the most likely cause of this problem?
	a. trauma b. infection c. unknown d. drugs, foods, insect sting e. (b) and (d)
3.	How would you treat this case?
	a. surgical drainage b. do nothing c. avoid ACE inhibitors d. antihistamines and possibly systemic steroids e. (c) and (d)

For answers to the above, click here on or after November 29, 2011.