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Answers: 2004 series -  July 20, 2004 Lecture 24 of 50  NEXT»

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A 55-year-old female has noted "flashes" in front of her right eye for three months as well as a "dark spot" in her vision temporally in the right eye.  She has 20/20 vision in each eye unaided and is otherwise healthy.  A large lesion is present below the disc and macula of the right eye.  This lesion is shown on B-scan and an MRI is included. 

 1.  The most likely diagnosis is: 

a
-- This is most likely a melanoma.  This decision can be based on appearance, physical findings, and history.  There is no serous detachment seen on B-scan.  Coats disease, a condition occurring in younger patients, would have serous detachment.  Eales disease is associated with recurrent vitreous hemmorrhage and blurred vision.

 

 2.

The patient should be followed with: 

d -- The prudent course of action for managing a case like this would be to observe the tumor directly at regular, close intervals and at the same time carry out testing to determine if metastases are occurring.

 

 3. 

The following can be said about this patient:

d -- Since this is very likely to be a slow growing melanoma with low potential for metastases enucleation is not a good idea.  Instead, observation is the choice.  Even a notched plaque would be inappropriate because of the proximity of the tumor to the optic nerve.   


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