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2008 Series - April 29, 2008
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Lecture 36 of 53 NEXT»
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| A 56-year-old white woman was noticed to have a dark spot in her left eye with no significant sytemic history. Best corrected vision was 6/6 in both eyes. Right eye examination was unremarkable. Left eye examination revealed a non-pigmented lesion in the anterior chamber angle which measured nearly 5 mm in diameter and contained intrinsic vessels [Fig. 1]. Gonioscopy is shown in Fig. 2 and transillumination showed no shadow in the ciliary body region. Ultrasound showed a lesion measuring 2 mm in thickness and 5 mm in base [Fig. 3]. Fundus examination was normal in both eyes. |
| 1. |
What is the most probable diagnosis? |
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| a. |
iris nevus |
| b. |
iris melanocytoma |
| c. |
iris ciliary body melanoma |
| d. |
none of the above |
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| 2. |
Risk factors in favor of above lesion to be malignant: |
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| a. |
choroidal nevus |
| b. |
vessels within the lesion (intrinsic vessels) |
| c. |
all of the above |
| d. |
none of the above |
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| 3. |
The most suitable treatment for this case is: |
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| a. |
observation |
| b. |
biopsy and further management decisions depending upon the histopathology |
| c. |
partial lamellar sclerouvectomy (PLSU) |
| d. |
plaque radiotherapy |
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For answers to the above, click here on or after May 6, 2008.
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