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2009 Series - September 8, 2009
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Lecture 17 of 52 NEXT»
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To see views enlarged, click on the individual pictures...
| A 50-year-old otherwise healthy Asian male comes in for a routine examination and mentions that his vision seems mildly blurred in the left eye. The patient’s best corrected vision is 20/30. On dilated fundus examination, you notice the peripapillary lesion as shown above. |
| 1. |
Which of the following entities would be HIGHEST on your differential diagnosis? |
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| a. |
age-related macular degeneration |
| b. |
idiopathic polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy (PCV) |
| c. |
choroidal hemangioma |
| d. |
metastasis from carcinoid syndrome |
| e. |
none of the above |
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| 2. |
What diagnostic test would be MOST useful in establishing a definitive diagnosis? |
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| a. |
B-scan |
| b. |
OCT: Optical Coherence Tomography |
| c. |
FA: Fluorescein Angiography |
| d. |
ICG: Indocyanine Green Angiography |
| e. |
ERG: Electroretinogram |
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| 3. |
How would you treat this patient at this time? |
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| a. |
observe |
| b. |
intravitreal anti-VEGF inhibitor |
| c. |
photocoagulation treatment of the leaking aneurysmal or polypoidal components within the vascular lesion |
| d. |
photocoagulation treatment of the entire vascular complex |
| e. |
photodynamic therapy (PDT) |
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For answers to the above, click here on or after September 15, 2009.
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