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A 40-year-old African female comes in complaining of decreased vision in the right eye. She denies any past ocular history, including no red eye, photophobia or trauma. The left eye appears normal.

1.	Given the history above, what may account for the patient’s decreased vision?
	a. corneal edema b. corectopia c. glaucoma d. all of the above e. none of the above
2.	The patient is noted to have elevated intraocular pressures. What is the most likely mechanism for this?
	a. dysgenesis of angle structures b. primary open angle glaucoma c. secondary open angle glaucoma d. primary angle closure glaucoma e. secondary angle closure glaucoma
3.	What is the best way to treat this patient’s elevated intraocular pressure?
	a. miotics b. aqueous suppressants c. immediate trabeculectomy d. immediate aqueous tube shunt e. none of the above

For answers to the above, click here on or after September 29, 2009.