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2005 Series - June 21, 2005
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Lecture 28 of 52 NEXT»
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| A 35-year-old male comes for an eye examination with no specific complaints. He is found to have 20/20 vision in both eyes. On dilated exam, he is found to have the following lesion. |
| 1. |
This most likely represents: |
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| a. |
malignant melanoma |
| b. |
disc edema |
| c. |
central retina vein occlusion (CRVO) |
| d. |
melanocytoma |
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| 2. |
The most likely cause of this lesion is: |
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| a. |
trauma |
| b. |
metastasis from the central nervous system |
| c. |
congenital abnormality of the pigmentation of the optic disc |
| d. |
hemorrhage, likely venous |
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| 3. |
Treatment of this lesion includes: |
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| a. |
enucleation |
| b. |
laser treatment |
| c. |
observation and serial measurements |
| d. |
intravitreal steroids | |
For answers to the above, click here on or after June 28, 2005.
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