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2005 Series - May 31, 2005
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Lecture 31 of 52 NEXT»
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| A 35-year-old white male presents with blurred vision (20/50) in his right eye for one week. He denies any past ocular history and on one examination he is found to have the above fundus and fluorescein angiography findings in the right eye and no retinal findings in the left eye. |
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Which of the following is true regarding this condition? |
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| a. |
The patient's fluorescein angiography findings are most likely due to choroidal neovascularization and should receive laser therapy immediately. |
| b. |
This is most likely macular degeneration and the patient should receive photodynamic therapy (PDT). |
| c. |
This is most likely an inflammatory process and the patient should be started on oral steroids. |
| d. |
The patient should be observed at this time. |
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For answer to the above, click here on or after June 7, 2005.
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