Answers: 2005 Series - July 19, 2005
Lecture 24 of 52 NEXT»
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|A 22-year-old man presents with progressive decreased vision in both eyes for the past two years. His visual acuity is 20/400 OU and he denies any prior eye surgery or disease. His fundus and subsequent fluoroscein angiograms reveals the above clinical picture.|
|This disease is most likely caused by: |
d -- genetic defect
- Most commonly an autosomal recessive condition affecting young adults.
- The macula commonly appears atrophic with a "beaten metal appearance" and discreet yellow flecks.
- The pathogenesis appears to involve an accumulation of lipofuscin within the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE )